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640-864 Q & A / Study Guide

Lindsay — Tue, 21 Feb 2012 14:50:44 +0000

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QUESTION 1
Which consideration is the most important for the network designer when considering IP routing?

A. convergence
B. scalability
C. on-demand routing
D. redistribution

Answer: B

QUESTION 2
You want to gather as much detail as possible during a network audit, to data time stamping
across a large number of interfaces, customized include according to interface, with a minimal
impact on the network devices themselves. Which tool would you use to meet these
requirements?

A. RMON
B. SNMFV3
C. NetFlow
D. Cisco Discovery Protocol

Answer: D

QUESTION 3
DataQuirk is a web-based medical transcription company for exotic-animal veterinarians. The
company recently added a third ISP for international business. They are organizing the enterprise
network into a fully operational Enterprise Edge.
To which two modules will the three ISPs be directly related? (Choose two)

A. PSTN
B. E- Commerce
C. WAN/MAN
D. Edge Distribution
E. Internet Connectivity
F. Remote Access VPN

Answer: B,E

QUESTION 4
Which two of these practices are considered to be best practices when designing the access layer
for the enterprise campus? (Choose two)

A. Implement all of the service (QoS, security, STP, and so on) in the access layer, offloading the
work from the distribution and core layers.
B. Always use a Spanning Tree Protocol; preferred is Rapid PVST+.
C. Use automatic VLAN pruning to prune unused VLANs from trunked interface to avoid broadcast
propagation.
D. Avoid wasted processing by disabling STP where loops are not possible.
E. Use VTP transparent mode to decrease the potential for operational error

Answer: B,C

QUESTION 5
With deterministic Wireless LAN Controller redundancy design, the different options available to
the designer have their own strengths. Which one of these statements is an example of such a
strength?

A. Dynamic load balancing, or salt-and-pepper access point design, avoids the potential impact of
oversubscription on aggregate network performance.
B. N+N redundancy configuration allows logically grouping access points on controllers to
minimize intercontroller roaming events.
C. N+N+1 redundancy configuration has the least impact to system management because all of
the controllers are collocated in an NOC or data center
D. N+1 redundancy configuration uses Layer 3 intercontroller roaming, maintaining traffic on the
same subnet for more efficiency.

Answer: B

QUESTION 6
Which of these statements is true concerning the data center access layer design?

A. The access layer in the data center is typically built at Layer 3, which allows for better shaping
of services across multiple servers.
B. With Layer 2 access, the default gateway for the servers can be configured at the access or
aggregation layer.
C. A dual-homing NIC requires a VLAN or trunk between the two access switches to support the
dual IP address on the two server links to two separate switches.
D. The access layer is normally not required, as dual homing is standard from the servers to the
aggregation layer.

Answer: B

QUESTION 7
Which one of these statements should the designer keep in mind when considering the advanced
routing features?

A. one-way router redistribution avoids the requirement for state or default routes.
B. Redistribution, summarization, and filtering are most often applied between the campus core
and enterprise edge.
C. Filtering only occurs on the routing domain boundary using redistribution.
D. Summarize routes at the core toward the distribution layer.
E. The hierarchical flexibility of IPv6 addressing avoids the requirements for routing traffic
reduction using aggregation.

Answer: B

QUESTION 8
Which two statements about designing the Data Center Access layer are correct? (Choose two)

A. Multiport NIC servers should each have their own IP address
B. Layer 3 connectivity should never be used in the access layer
C. Layer 2 connectivity is primarily implemented in the access layer
D. Multiport NIC servers should never be used in the access layer
E. Layer 2 clustering implementation requires servers to be Layer 2 adjacent

Answer: C,E

QUESTION 9
Which IPv6 feature enables routing to distribute connection requests to the nearest content
server?

A. Link-local
B. Site-local
C. Anycast
D. Multicast
E. Global aggregatable

Answer: C

QUESTION 10
Which one of these statements is true about addressing redundancy within the WAN
environment?

A. The reliability and speed of DSL allow for cost savings by not including redundant links.
B. CAMDM and dark fiber offer advanced redundancy features such as automatic backup and
repair mechanism to cope system faults.
C. An SLA is one way to eliminate the need for redundancy.
D. The failure of a single SONET/SDH link or network element does not lead to failure of the entire
network.

Answer: D

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640-863 Q & A / Study Guide

Lindsay — Sun, 19 Feb 2012 09:37:50 +0000

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QUESTION 1
A Cisco Self-Defending Network has been installed, but DoS attacks are still being directed at ecommerce
hosts. The connection rate at the Internet firewall was limited, but the problem persists.
What more can be done?

A. Move the servers to the DMZ.
B. Install all relevant operating system patches.
C. Block the servers’ TCP traffic at the Internet firewall.
D. Block the servers’ UDP traffic at the Internet firewall.

Answer: B

QUESTION 2
RST Corporation is planning to upgrade its current network. The chief technology officer has
supplied a topology diagram and an IP addressing scheme of the current network during an
interview.
RST has been growing at about twenty percent per year. It has been difficult to maintain customer
support at a satisfactory level. Therefore, the RST board has met with and directed the chief
technology officer to look into network improvements.
Which two items are most relevant in documenting RST’s business requirements? (Choose two.)

A. existing network topologies
B. network performance requirements
C. the IP addresses assigned by the ISP
D. improved customer support requirements
E. projected growth estimates

Answer: D,E

QUESTION 3
Refer to the exhibit. Which module is the Enterprise WAN module?

A. Enterprise A
B. Enterprise B
C. Enterprise F
D. Enterprise C
E. Enterprise D
F. Enterprise E

Answer: D

QUESTION 4
Which two of these best describe the implementation of a WAN Backup design over the Internet?
(Choose two.)

A. a best-effort method
B. bandwidth guaranteed based on interface configuration
C. designed as an alternative to a failed WAN connection
D. implemented with a point-to-point logical link using a Layer 2 tunnel
E. requires no ISP coordination or involvement

Answer: A,C

QUESTION 5
Which two design criteria require VLANs in a proposed solution? (Choose two.)

A. the segmenting of collision domains
B. a limited corporate budget
C. the use of multivendor equipment
D. security between departments
E. video streaming on the LAN
F. the segmenting of broadcast domains

Answer: D,F

QUESTION 6
Which two methods are used to enhance VPN performance on Cisco ISRs? (Choose two.)

A. SSL Acceleration Network Module
B. VPN Shared Port Adapter
C. VPN Acceleration Module
D. high-performance VPN encryption AIM
E. VPN Service Adapter
F. built-in hardware-based encryption acceleration

Answer: D,F

QUESTION 7
Which three factors best justify WAN link redundancy between geographically dispersed sites?
(Choose three.)

A. high expense of transmitting data
B. important traffic flows
C. excessive packet transmission rate
D. uncertain reliability
E. high link utilization
F. lack of speed

Answer: B,D,F

QUESTION 8
Which three pieces of information should be documented for each step of each phase in a design
implementation plan? (Choose three.)

A. easy guidelines in case of failure
B. estimated rollback time in case of failure
C. simple implementation guidelines
D. estimated implementation time
E. design document references
F. step description

Answer: D,E,F

QUESTION 9
The topology map in the draft design document should cover which two layers of the OSI model?
(Choose two.)

A. session
B. data link
C. transport
D. application
E. physical
F. network

Answer: E,F

QUESTION 10
In a Cisco CatOS switch, what is the recommended practice when configuring switch-to-switch
intercommunications to carry multiple VLANs for Dynamic Trunk Protocol?

A. auto toauto_negotiate
B. disable Dynamic Trunk Protocol when operating in the distribution layer
C. auto toauto_no_negotiate
D. desirable todesirable_no_negotiate
E. on toon_negotiate
F. desirable todesirable_negotiate

Answer: F

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Oracle drops one Java patent claim against Google

IT Trainer — Sun, 19 Feb 2012 08:56:59 +0000

Oracle has decided to give up on one of the patent claims it brought against Google in its lawsuit over alleged Java intellectual property violations in the Android mobile OS.

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Earlier this week, Google asked for permission to file a motion for summary judgment that would toss out Claim 14 of U.S. Patent No. 6,192,476, arguing that a court ruling in January “construed Claim 14 to cover patent-ineligible subject matter.”

But in a letter filed Friday in U.S. District Court for the Northern District of California, Oracle said it would no longer pursue redress under the patent.

“As part of its continuing effort to streamline the case for trial and make best use of the Court’s and parties’ resources, Oracle has today by separate letter to Google withdrawn the assertion of Claim 14 of the ’476 patent, the only claim that is the subject of Google’s prA(c)cis letter (and the only remaining asserted claim of the ’476 patent),” the letter from Oracle attorney Michael Jacobs states. “Accordingly, Oracle requests that the Court deny Google’s request for leave as moot.”

It had already been unclear whether Claim 14 of the patent would make it to trial, given its rejection by the U.S. Patent and Trademark Office in December following a reexamination.

The vendor had until later this month to file a response to the rejection, but Jacobs’ letter to the court on Friday seems to rule out that option.

Oracle filed suit against Google in August 2010, claiming that Android violated a number of patents and copyrights it holds on Java, the open-source programming language. But Google has denied wrongdoing, asserting that Android uses a “clean-room” implementation of Java that doesn’t infringe on Oracle’s intellectual property.

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640-822 Q & A / Study Guide

Lindsay — Fri, 17 Feb 2012 09:15:30 +0000

QUESTION 1
After the router interfaces shown in the diagram have been configured, it is discovered that hosts
in the Branch LAN cannot access the Internet. Further testing reveals additional connectivity
issues. What will fix this problem?

A. Change the address of the HQ router LAN interface.
B. Change the subnet mask of the HQ router LAN interface.
C. Change the address of the Branch router LAN interface.
D. Change the address of the HQ router interface to the Internet.
E. Change the address of the Branch router WAN interface.
F. Change the subnet mask of the HQ router interface to the Internet.

Answer: E

QUESTION 2
Refer to the graphic. A Cisco router and a Catalyst switch are connected as shown. The technician
is working on a computer that is connected to the management console of the switch. In order to
configure the default gateway for the switch, the technician needs to learn the IP address of the
attached router interface. Which IOS command will provide this information in the absence of
Layer 3 connectivity?

A. showcdp neighbors detail
B. pingrouter_ip_address
C. showip neighbors
D. pingswitch_ip_address
E. showdhcp-config
F. showip rarp

Answer: A

Explanation:
To display detailed information about neighboring devices discovered using Cisco Discovery
Protocol (CDP), use the show cdp neighbors privileged EXEC command.
Detail – (Optional) Displays detailed information about a neighbor (or neighbors) including network
address, enabled protocols, hold time, and software version.
The following is sample output for the show cdp neighbors detail command.
router# show cdp neighbors detail
————————-
Device ID: lab-7206
Entry address( es ):
IP address: 172.19.169.83
Platform: cisco 7206VXR, Capabilities: Router
Interface: Ethernet0, Port ID (outgoing port): FastEthernet0/0/0
Holdtime : 123 sec
Version :
Cisco Internetwork Operating System Software
IOS ™ 5800 Software (C5800-P4-M), Version 12.1(2)
Copyright (c) 1986-2002 by Cisco Systems, Inc.
advertisement version: 2
Duplex: half

QUESTION 3
Refer to the exhibit. The ports that are shown are the only active ports on the switch. The MAC
address table is shown in its entirety. The Ethernet frame that is shown arrives at the switch.
What two operations will the switch perform when it receives this frame? (Choose two.)

A. The frame will be forwarded out port fa0/3 only.
B. The frame will be forwarded out fa0/1, fa0/2, and fa0/3.
C. The frame will be forwarded out all the active ports.
D. The MAC address of 0000.00dd.dddd will be added to the MAC address table.
E. The MAC address of 0000.00aa.aaaa will be added to the MAC address table.

Answer: B,E

QUESTION 4
Refer to the exhibit. Workstation A must be able to telnet to switch SW-A through router RTA for
management purposes. What must be configured for this connection to be successful?

A. IP routing on SW-A
B. default gateway on SW-A
C. VLAN 1 on RTA
D. cross-over cable connecting SW-A and RTA

Answer: B

Explanation:
Configure a default gateway on SW-A.
In order for a switch to send traffic to a destination that is not located directly, as is the case in our
example, a default gateway must be configured on the switch. This will enable it to send the traffic
to router RTA where it can be routed to host A.

QUESTION 5
What does the “Inside Global” address represent in the configuration of NAT?

A. a globally unique, private IP address assigned to a host on the inside network
B. the summarized address for all of the internalsubnetted addresses
C. a registered address that represents an inside host to an outside network
D. the MAC address of the router used by inside hosts to connect to the Internet

Answer: C

Explanation:
With NAT, Cisco defines 4 different types of addresses as follows:
Inside local address – The IP address assigned to a host on the inside network. This is the address
configured as a parameter of the computer’s OS or received via dynamic address allocation
protocols such as DHCP. The address is likely not a legitimate IP address assigned by the
Network Information Center (NIC) or service provider.
Inside global address – A legitimate IP address assigned by the NIC or service provider that
represents one or more inside local IP addresses to the outside world.
Outside local address – The IP address of an outside host as it appears to the inside network. Not
necessarily a legitimate address, it is allocated from an address space routable on the inside.
Outside global address – The IP address assigned to a host on the outside network by the host’s
owner. The address is allocated from a globally routable address or network space.
The above definitions still leave a lot to be interpreted. For this example, this document redefines
these terms by first defining “local address” and “global address.” Keep in mind that the terms
“inside” and “outside” are NAT definitions. Interfaces on a NAT router are defined as “inside” or
“outside” with the NAT configuration commands, ip nat inside and ip nat outside . Networks to
which these interfaces connect can then be thought of as “inside” networks or “outside” networks,
respectively.
Local address – A local address is any address that appears on the “inside” portion of the
network.
Global address – A global address is any address that appears on the “outside” portion of the
network.

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What Antivirus Offers for 2012

IT Trainer — Sat, 11 Feb 2012 14:20:19 +0000

As a result of the increased use of the Internet as a primary tool for communications many producers of antivirus programs are beefing up their security to provide enhanced protection against hackers that create viruses and malware. The more people use the Internet the craftier these criminals become so it is important to protect your PC with the latest antivirus software.

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2012 is now underway and many people are wondering what is in store for antivirus 2012. And if you are looking for antivirus gratis this type of PC protection also can offer an impressive array of features for guarding your PC against harmful malware and viruses. In this article, we will take a look at some of the common and not so common features which are included in antivirus programs this year.

Enhanced Rootkit Detection

Many antivirus software and antivirus gratis programs are increasing the protection against rootkits. Rootkits are much harder to detect than the typical virus or malware. A rootkit is capable of bypassing most antivirus and anti-malware programs and then it hides deep inside your PC which means it goes undetected.

Rootkits have become more common and are harder to remove from your PC than a virus or malware. As antivirus programs become more advanced the programmers are resorting to rootkit code in an effort to get by antivirus technology.

For this reason, a popular enhancement for antivirus 2012 and antivirus gratis programs is rootkit detection. This means that the antivirus software is providing tighter security for your PC than in the past to protect your PC against savvy computer programmers that have malicious intent.

Sandbox

A sandbox is a program that is included in your antivirus protection software and has been built into the antivirus gratis programs for this year. The sandbox provides a designated area in your PC where potentially malicious files are stored to prevent them from infecting other files and programs in your computer. The malicious files are those they may have made their way past the antivirus software and into your PC. If the file is potentially harmful to your PC it will remain in the sandbox until it is removed.

Screensaver Which Scans for Malware

When you leave your PC sitting idle for any length of time it is still possible for your computer to be subjected to drive-by downloads and other malicious programs. Some of the antivirus 2012 and antivirus gratis programs offer a screensaver that will automatically scan the drives on your PC for viruses and malware as soon as the screensaver kicks in. This feature ensures your PC is protected even when you are away working on another task.

DNA Matching

The newer antivirus software offers a feature called DNA matching which takes on a proactive approach to identifying viruses and malware. This type of technology which is becoming more common is capable of identifying the code profile of many different types of malicious programs to help detect new viruses and malware created by the same author. Many programmers of malicious software reuse programming codes in new viruses and malware. Antivirus 2012 software and many antivirus gratis programs are capable of identifying the DNA match between previously released malicious files and new ones created by the same author.

These are a few of the features which are included in the quality antivirus programs for this year. Many producers of PC protection software are continually working on ways to beef up the security for PCs which are connected to the Internet.

Antivirus Gratis is the best antivirus and antispyware protection for your computer. With this SKY internet security boost your slow internet with PC Speed software.

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Oracle seeks new trial in IP theft suit against SAP

IT Trainer — Wed, 08 Feb 2012 11:27:15 +0000

Oracle’s plan to drag its legal fight against rival SAP’s defunct TomorrowNow subsidiary through a second trial is not surprising, analysts said Tuesday.

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The company clearly wants to distract SAP by forcing it to go through another bruising battle in court, they said.

“SAP wanted to get this whole messy affair behind it as quickly as possible,” said Frank Scavo, president of Computer Economics, an IT research firm. “Right now, SAP has a lot of momentum, but if Oracle can keep the dispute alive it keeps SAP on the defensive.”

Oracle on Monday rejected a federal judge’s September ruling that had awarded it $272 million in damages in its IP infringement lawsuit against SAP.

Judge Phyllis Hamilton’s decision cut about $1 billion from the $1.3 billion in damages awarded by a jury hearing the suit in late 2010.

Hamilton said Oracle could either accept the damages she awarded or seek a new trial.

Oracle has claimed–and SAP has subsequently admitted — that the now-closed TomorrowNow subsidiary infringed on Oracle’s intellectual property and IPs when it delivered third-party support and maintenance services to Oracle customers.

Oracle in September had vowed to seek the $1.3 billion awarded by the jury. In the motion filed Monday U.S. District Court for the Northern District of California, Oracle formally rejected the $272 million award and said it had “no choice but to elect a new trial.”

Accepting Hamilton’s ruling would “force Oracle to risk waiving its right to appeal the Court’s decision on the motions for judgment as a matter of law and for a new trial,” the company said.

Scavo said Oracle’s motion for a new trail isn’t surprising. “Oracle’s continued pursuit of SAP is just one battle in the war against third-party support,” he noted.

Oracle has filed a similar lawsuit against Rimini Street, a provider of low-cost support services for users of enterprise software products from vendors such as Oracle, Siebel, PeopleSoft and SAP.

Rimini Street has claimed its services cost just half of what enterprises would otherwise need to pay Oracle, SAP and others for maintenance and support,

Oracle, which derives substantial revenues from such services, has claimed that Rimini and TomorrowNow are able to deliver the services only by illegally using Oracle software.

Scavo said the Rimini Street battle is more critical for Oracle than the TomorrowNow fight. “If that decision goes against Oracle, it essentially validates the legal basis for third-party support,” he said.

Paul Hamerman, an analyst at Forrester Research, said Oracle’s request for a new trial should have been expected given the significant difference between the jury’s damage award and the judge’s decision.

Also, he said “Oracle can afford to drag this out. The rivalry motivates Oracle to keep SAP on the defensive, and prolongs the agony for SAP, which just wants to put this case behind it,” he said.

IT executives should take note of Oracle’s actions and be careful when entering into contracts with third-party software service providers, Scavo added.

“Organizations that are currently looking at third-party maintenance should have their legal counsel take a careful look at the proposed contracts to ensure that their interests are adequately protected,” he said.

In a statement, SAP said it was “disappointed that Oracle has passed up yet another opportunity to resolve this case. We will continue to work to bring this case to a fair and reasonable end.”

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640-822 Q & A / Study Guide

Lindsay — Tue, 07 Feb 2012 19:02:26 +0000

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Answer: E

A. showcdp neighbors detail
B. pingrouter_ip_address
C. showip neighbors
D. pingswitch_ip_address
E. showdhcp-config
F. showip rarp

Answer: A

Answer: B,E

QUESTION 4
Refer to the exhibit. Workstation A must be able to telnet to switch SW-A through router RTA for
management purposes. What must be configured for this connection to be successful?

A. IP routing on SW-A
B. default gateway on SW-A
C. VLAN 1 on RTA
D. cross-over cable connecting SW-A and RTA

Answer: B

QUESTION 5
What does the “Inside Global” address represent in the configuration of NAT?

Answer: C

QUESTION 6
Refer to the exhibit. What does the address 192.168.2.167 represent?

A. the router to which the file startup-config is being transferred
B. the TFTP server from which the file router-confg is being transferred
C. the TFTP server to which the file router-confg is being transferred
D. the TFTP server from which the file startup-config is being transferred
E. the router from which the file startup-config is being transferred
F. the router to which the file router-confg is being transferred

Answer: C

QUESTION 7
Two routers named Atlanta and Brevard are connected by their serial interfaces as shown in the
exhibit, but there is no data connectivity between them. The Atlanta router is known to have a
correct configuration. Given the partial configurations shown in the exhibit, what is the problem on
the Brevard router that is causing the lack of connectivity?

A. The bandwidth setting is incompatible with the connected interface.
B. The maximum transmission unit (MTU) size is too large.
C. The subnet mask is incorrect.
D. The serial line encapsulations are incompatible.
E. A loopback is not set.
F. The IP address is incorrect.

Answer: F

QUESTION 8
The administrator is unable to establish connectivity between two Cisco routers. Upon reviewing
the command output of both routers, what is the most likely cause of the problem?

A. Username/password is incorrectly configured.
B. Router names are incorrectly configured.
C. Serialip addresses
D. Authentication needs to be changed to PAP for both routers.

Answer: A

Explanation:
When setting up local password database in CHAP, configure commands username username
password password in overall configuration mode to add note to local password database. Note
that the username here should be the router name on the opposite side. And the password should
be the same as that in the password database of CHAP authentication server. The above graphic
shows different password.

QUESTION 9
Which of the following are types of flow control? (Choose three.)

A. cut-through
B. load balancing
C. congestion avoidance
D. buffering
E. windowing

Answer: C,D,E

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640-811 Q & A / Study Guide / Testing Engine / Training Video

Lindsay — Sat, 04 Feb 2012 21:20:32 +0000

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QUESTION 1
Refer to the exhibit.

How should the FastEthernet0/1 ports on the 2950 model switches that are shown in the exhibit be
configured to allow connectivity between all devices?

A. The ports only need to be connected by a crossover cable.
B. SwitchX (config)# interface fastethernet 0/1
SwitchX (config-if)# switchport mode access
SwitchX (config-if)# switchport access vlan 1
C. SwitchX (config)# interface fastethernet 0/1
SwitchX (config-if)# switchport mode trunk
SwitchX (config-if)# switchport trunk vlan 1
SwitchX (config-if)# switchport trunk vlan 10
SwitchX (config-if)# switchport trunk vlan 20
D. SwitchX(config)# interface fastethernet 0/1
SwitchX(config-if)# switchport mode trunk

Answer: D

Explanation:

QUESTION 2
Refer to the exhibit.

Which two statements are true about interVLAN routing in the topology that is shown in the
exhibit? (Choose two.)

A. Host E and host F use the same IP gateway address.
B. Router1 and Switch2 should be connected via a crossover cable.
C. Router1 will not play a role in communications between host A and host D.
D. The FastEthernet 0/0 interface on Router1 must be configured with subinterfaces.
E. Router1 needs more LAN interfaces to accommodate the VLANs that are shown in the exhibit.
F. The FastEthernet 0/0 interface on Router1 and Switch2 trunk ports must be configured using
the same encapsulation type.

Answer: D,F

Explanation:

QUESTION 3
A department decides to replace its hub with a Catalyst 2950 switch that is no longer needed by
another department. To prepare the switch for installation, the network administrator has erased
the startup configuration and reloaded the switch. However, PCs that are connected to the switch
experience various connectivity problems. What is a possible cause of the problem?

A. The VLAN database was not erased.
B. The management VLAN is disabled.
C. The running configuration should have been erased.
D. The “mode” button was not pressed when the switch was reloaded.
E. The switch was not configured with an IP address or a default gateway.

Answer: A

Explanation:

QUESTION 4
Refer to the exhibit.

Why has this switch not been elected the root bridge for VLAN1?

A. It has more than one interface that is connected to the root network segment.
B. It is running RSTP while the elected root bridge is running 802.1d spanning tree.
C. It has a higher MAC address than the elected root bridge.
D. It has a higher bridge ID than the elected root bridge.

Answer: D

Explanation:

QUESTION 5
Refer to the exhibit.

The following commands are executed on interface fa0/1 of 2950Switch.
2950Switch(config-if)# switchport port-security
2950Switch(config-if)# switchport port-security mac-address sticky
2950Switch(config-if)# switchport port-security maximum 1
The Ethernet frame that is shown arrives on interface fa0/1.
What two functions will occur when this frame is received by 2950Switch? (Choose two.)

A. The MAC address table will now have an additional entry of fa0/1 FFFF.FFFF.FFFF.
B. Only host A will be allowed to transmit frames on fa0/1.
C. This frame will be discarded when it is received by 2950Switch.
D. All frames arriving on 2950Switch with a destination of 0000.00aa.aaaa will be forwarded out
fa0/1.
E. Hosts B and C may forward frames out fa0/1 but frames arriving from other switches will not be
forwarded out fa0/1.
F. Only frames from source 0000.00bb.bbbb, the first learned MAC address of 2950Switch, will be
forwarded out fa0/1.

Answer: B,D

Explanation:

QUESTION 6
Which two of these statements regarding RSTP are correct? (Choose two.)

A. RSTP cannot operate with PVST+.
B. RSTP defines new port roles.
C. RSTP defines no new port states.
D. RSTP is a proprietary implementation of IEEE 802.1D STP.
E. RSTP is compatible with the original IEEE 802.1D STP.

Answer: B,E

Explanation:

QUESTION 7
Refer to exhibit.

A network administrator cannot establish a Telnet session with the indicated router. What is the
cause of this failure?

A. A Level 5 password is not set.
B. An ACL is blocking Telnet access.
C. The vty password is missing.
D. The console password is missing.

Answer: C

Explanation:

QUESTION 8
A network administrator needs to configure port security on a switch. Which two statements are
true? (Choose two.)

A. The network administrator can apply port security to dynamic access ports.
B. The network administrator can apply port security to EtherChannels.
C. When dynamic MAC address learning is enabled on an interface, the switch can learn new
addresses, up to the maximum defined.
D. The sticky learning feature allows the addition of dynamically learned addresses to the running
configuration.
E. The network administrator can configure static secure or sticky secure MAC addresses in the
voice VLAN.

Answer: C,D

Explanation:

QUESTION 9
What are two characteristics of a switch that is configured as a VTP client? (Choose two.)

A. If a switch that is configured to operate in client mode cannot access a VTP server, then the
switch reverts to transparent mode.
B. On switches that are configured to operate in client mode, VLANs can be created, deleted, or
renamed locally.
C. The local VLAN configuration is updated only when an update that has a higher configuration
revision number is received.
D. VTP advertisements are not forwarded to neighboring switches that are configured in VTP
transparent mode.
E. VTP client is the default VTP mode.
F. When switches in VTP client mode are rebooted, they send a VTP advertisement request to the
VTP servers.

Answer: C,F

Explanation:

QUESTION 10
At which layer of the OSI model is RSTP used to prevent loops?

A. physical
B. data link
C. network
D. transport

Answer: B

Explanation:

QUESTION 1
Refer to the exhibit.

How should the FastEthernet0/1 ports on the 2950 model switches that are shown in the exhibit be
configured to allow connectivity between all devices?

Answer: D

Explanation:

QUESTION 2
Refer to the exhibit.

Which two statements are true about interVLAN routing in the topology that is shown in the
exhibit? (Choose two.)

Answer: D,F

Explanation:

Answer: A

Explanation:

QUESTION 4
Refer to the exhibit.

Why has this switch not been elected the root bridge for VLAN1?

Answer: D

Explanation:

QUESTION 5
Refer to the exhibit.

Answer: B,D

Explanation:

QUESTION 6
Which two of these statements regarding RSTP are correct? (Choose two.)

Answer: B,E

Explanation:

QUESTION 7
Refer to exhibit.

A network administrator cannot establish a Telnet session with the indicated router. What is the
cause of this failure?

A. A Level 5 password is not set.
B. An ACL is blocking Telnet access.
C. The vty password is missing.
D. The console password is missing.

Answer: C

Explanation:

QUESTION 8
A network administrator needs to configure port security on a switch. Which two statements are
true? (Choose two.)

Answer: C,D

Explanation:

QUESTION 9
What are two characteristics of a switch that is configured as a VTP client? (Choose two.)

Answer: C,F

Explanation:

QUESTION 10
At which layer of the OSI model is RSTP used to prevent loops?

A. physical
B. data link
C. network
D. transport

Answer: B

Explanation:

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The Basic Methodology of Software Development Services

IT Trainer — Fri, 03 Feb 2012 14:27:15 +0000

Software development is a technically complex process which goes through various stages during the whole development procedure. The concept is termed as software development life cycle (SDLC) and involves various stages of software development. To successfully offer software development services, organizations should define a development methodology that suits the requirements of the project. Different projects may require different methodologies therefore software development service providers must evaluate the project requirements first and then formulate the strategy for the software development life cycle.

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Most of the software development service providers have a pre-defined methodology that is implemented while developing a software. The process gets a little modified according to the project requirements but the essence of the project development procedure remains the same. The basic stages of software development are as mentioned below:

Requirements Specifications: The first and foremost step while developing software must be gathering the requirements of the project. The organizations must start with analyzing the feasibility and the requirements of the project. Some questions that must be clarified in this phase are:

What are client’s expectations of the project?

What would the user want in the software?

Is the project technically feasible or not?

The above questions, along with many more, must be answered and properly justified before software development service providers move any further.

Design: This stage involves development of an outlay for developing the project with all the little details included. The project requirements are evaluated and an implementation strategy for achieving these requirements in the form of a software is formulated. The designing phase is divided into two categories i.e. system design and component design. The system design is design of the software as a whole where questions like how the individual components will interact with each other are answered. The component design phase, as the name suggests, deals with the planning for each individual component.

Implementation: The components are actually created in the implementation phase. The design layout created in the previous phase is implemented and converted into a machine language that the computer can understand and respond to. Programming languages such as C, C++, C#, Asp.Net, PHP etc are used according to the project requirement to achieve the best possible results. The source code and database are created in the implementation phase. Accurate and effective designing of the software is essential for a successful implementation of the software.

Testing: The testing phase usually starts after the components are created but in some cases the software development service provider can start the testing along with the implementation phase. This methodology may require a little more effort and time but the end solution is void of any discrepancies or errors as they are detected and removed as soon as a component is developed.

Installation: The components of the software are combined together and the completed software is installed and executed on a computer system. If all the previous phases have been performed expertly then there will be no problem in the installation phase. A thorough testing is again recommended after installing the software to make sure that the end solution is working as desired.

Maintenance: It has been noticed that almost every software goes through changes and modification after it is completed. This may be due to some new requirements, overlooked features or the change in the business strategy. This requires constant evaluation and maintenance of the software.

Most of the software development service providers follow the above described development methodology for creating softwares. It is the basic methodology of software development services. Once the software is completed and delivered successfully, the task of the service provider does not end. A professional software development company will offer maintenance services to insure a smooth and well functioning solution to their clients.

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Preparing Open Source Software Compliance Guidelines

IT Trainer — Fri, 03 Feb 2012 14:10:48 +0000

The purpose of these Open Source Software Compliance Guidelines (Guidelines) is to provide guidance in the development of procedures designed to verify compliance with the license requirements of various open source software applications and code (OSS) used internally or included in products for distribution. Technology lawyers, advisors and consultants need to be aware of issues surrounding open source software in order to properly advise their clients.

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The output of these Guidelines should be (1) an Open Source Software Compliance Policy (OSS Policy) that describes the policies and procedures applicable to the company’s use of OSS, and (2) an inventory (OSS Inventory) of all OSS approved for use within the company.

The OSS Policy must be designed with the company’s culture and specific way of operating in mind in order to be effective. The OSS Policy should also be reviewed and updated on a regular basis.

The OSS Inventory is the ultimate output of these Guidelines and the OSS Policy. However, it will also serve as a ready document, in modified form, that can be provided to customers that may request a listing of OSS contained in distributed products and to a potential partner or acquirer which is performing due diligence.

It is important to note that 3rd party proprietary software will often contain OSS components. Therefore, particularly when such software is being included in a distributed product, it is necessary to have the vendor identify all OSS components so that they can be considered along the lines as set forth below.

Designated Gatekeeper:

A person or committee should be designated for approval of all OSS proposed to be used internally or included in products for distribution. In order for this procedure to be effective, notice must be provided to relevant company personnel that the company requires prior approval of all OSS utilized in any manner within the company. Such notice must be conspicuous and repeated at regular intervals. In addition, supervisors must also be instructed to reinforce this requirement. Special attention must be paid to development teams which are accustomed to pulling OSS from various places, and usually operate subject to tight deadlines.

Request for Approval:

1. Requests for approval should be submitted within the amount of time prior to use/implementation as stated in the OSS Policy. The approval process should be initiated with the submission of a document that contains at least the following information:

2. Name/Version Number/Source of Open Source Software

3. Name of Applicable License (e.g., GNU General Public License v.2, zlib, BSD), and Source Address for the License

4. Name of Entity/Person Granting License

5. Source Address from which OSS will be Obtained

6. Description of How OSS will be Used (e.g., internally, as a development tool, embedded in distributed product, etc.)

7. If included in distributed product, description of the manner in which these OSS will interact with the company’s proprietary source code (i.e., will the OSS be compiled and/or linked statically or dynamically with the company’s proprietary source code?)

8. The manner in which the OSS will be implemented (e.g., modified vs. unmodified, standalone, statically linked, dynamically linked, etc.).

9. Description of whether the OSS will be modified

10. Statement as to whether the OSS is a key product component

11. Statement as to whether the OSS well-known and widely used

12. Target date for OSS use/implementation

Approval Process:

The approval process involves examining risk areas relating to using the particular OSS. Risk areas may include:

1. Does the OSS license require making modified source code publicly available?

2. Does the OSS license require that source code for company’s proprietary software be made publicly available? (e.g., will there be static linking of GPL code with company’s proprietary software?)

3. Has there been litigation or other issues relating to the subject OSS?

4. Does the OSS license contain ambiguous terms, thereby potentially placing a cloud on company’s rights to use the OSS in a certain manner?

5. Will lack of warranties and intellectual property indemnification pose a risk to company vis-à-vis customer expectation and demands?

It is important that the approval process be conducted quickly, and the expected time period for approval should be set forth in the OSS Policy. Otherwise, users and developers are likely to get frustrated and find ways to get around the procedures as deadlines approach.

When new versions of approved OSS are used, an expedited approval process should take place. This allows the OSS Inventory to be kept up to date, and will prevent gaps forming in the inventory that could end up becoming large holes.

Compliance:

The goal of an OSS Policy is to achieve compliance with each OSS license. Depending upon the licenses involved, compliance may include any of the following:

1. Inclusion in appropriate documentation of warranty disclaimers, liability exclusions, author attribution, and proprietary rights notices.

2. Inclusion in appropriate documentation of the applicable OSS end user license agreement.

3. Public delivery or availability of source code for the unmodified version or the modified version.

4. Public delivery or availability of source code for company’s proprietary software if linked to a “copyleft” open source software code in a manner that requires this result.

5. Marking of modifications made to the OSS source code.

Audits:

On a periodic basis, at least annually, an audit should take place to verify that the OSS Inventory is accurate and up to date. The audit process can be as simple as distributing the OSS Inventory to key personnel who will sign off on it, or as complex as installing monitoring software that will identify OSS on the company’s computer system. The extent of the audit will depend upon company’s needs and the volume of open source OSS in use.

OSS Training:

Current and new employees should participate in an OSS Policy training session to ensure that they are aware of the company’s procedures and requirements in this area.

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